Iibertanism is that idea based on what a proper form of government is. In other words: Ilbertainsm is a governmentally focused idea where Objectivism is an objectively focused idea. Since this is the case then it cannot be said they are in anyway compatable ideas.
]]>The text (scroll down for the English version!) is available in my blog “Canabbaia”: http://beltwild.blogspot.de/2014/01/das-ebakeba-modell-von-geldschopfung.html
]]>I don’t think kthat your model can actually prove anything. But if I’d agree with your claim, I’d come to the very opposite conclusion of yours.
Funny it went unnoticed for such a long time, what Steven discovered in November 2011: “You also showed in the example how inflation kicks in.”
However, he derives no further reasonings from his discovery.
“Inflation” means two things:
1) That you have a discrepancy between nominal and real interest rates. Actually, in your model, you’ve robbed “B” (which, I suppose, stands for “banker” als well as for “baker”) of 20,20 USD: 20 which he somehow started out with, and 0,20 of his 2,- nominal profit (interest). Normally, he should end up having 22,- USD, but all he is left with is 1,80 USD. So inflation has really taken a toll on him. While M has been the profiteer.
2) However, of greater importance in the context of what you’re trying to prove (namely that one can redeem a 20,- USD debt PLUS INTEREST with a money supply of only that very sane 20,- principal), are the meanings of “inflation” for a real economy: Processing an equal amount of transactions within the same time period requires a higher money supply as the price level rises.
It doesn’t show up in your model, but whenever economic agents raise the prices, with everything else remaining equal, you do actually need more money.
Like I said: I’m not inferring any conclusions from this fact other than that your model does NOT hold what it promises.
]]>Most libertarians and classical liberals do not support “Macro Economics of Aggregates” as it assumes a State Central Planning monopoly power exists.
What Rahn did – was use global economic aggregate data from the world economies and measure the aggregates used by Keynesian masses to gather empirical trending data on GDP/GNP growth rates vs the comparable proportional structures.
Others use an accounting method of structural/functional finance
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Sectoral_Financial_Balances_in_U.S._Economy.png
What you will find is a trend where maximum financial measured growth and expansion in “REAL” vs Nominal Terms in per capital – comes from smaller Governments.
Each Country was different as you put forth – but the general TREND showed greater benefits of “capital goods” and financial distribution of wealth based on smaller government. In fact the problem with finding whether even lower ratios provided better growth rates did not exist because such countries did not exist with a modern economy.
]]>Alan Keyes is a genius! http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zXHWFu4oGDU
]]>Thank you, Paul.
]]>I’ve often wanted to crash the LSS while wearing a Nazi uniform, and tell them that *just like them*, I hated communism, and was opposed to foolish U.S. military adventurism!
Mike
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